Enterprise Resource Planning Multiple Choice Questions and Answers by SoftwareTechIT

Enterprise-Resource-Planning

Multiple Choice

Questions and Answers :-

1. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and columns in application data tables stored?

a. PSFIELD

b. PSRECFIELD

c. PS_DBFIELD

d. PSDBFIELD

ans:d

2. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?

a. SYSTEM CATALOG

b. PEOPLETOOLS TABLES

c. APPLICATION TABLES

d. PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG

ans:b

3. Where is the Application Data Cached?

a. Application server

b. Web server

c. Batch server

d. Browser Cache

e. None

ans:e

5. What is the record field property that should be set to validate dates for <> 30 days?

a. Setting %Date as constant

b. Required

c. Specifying Default using Record and Field values

d. Reasonable date

e. Validate date

ans:d

6. Prompt Tables always validate against the underlying Record?

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

ans:b

7. What are the requirements of an effective dated table?

a. Define EFFDT

b. Define EFF_STATUS

c. Define EFFDT as key, in ascending order

d. Define EFFDT, EFF_STATUS

e. Define EFFDT as key, in descending order

ans:e

8. EFFDT cannot occur at what occurs levels?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. 4

ans:a

9. What type of a field can have Auto Update?

a. CHAR

b. LONG CHAR

c. DATE

d. IMAGE

e. NUMBER

ans:c

10. PeopleSoft tracks object changes using a system table. Which PeopleTools System table is used to track object changes?

a. SYSRELEASE

b. SYSOBJECTS

c. PSRELEASE

d. PSOBJECTS

e. PSVERSIONS

ans:c

12. Selecting Search Edit from Record Field Properties?

a. Validates a field for Data to be entered on save of search dialog.

b. Allows to edit the search key.

c. Searches Edit fields for some values.

d. Option available only for Alternate Search Keys

ans:a

13. When can a value be added in the underlying table?

a. Prompt Table with Edit

b. Translate Table Edit

c. Yes/No Edit

d. Prompt Table with No Edit

e. All of the above

ans:d

14. Which of the following record definitions is NOT stored on the database and is therefore NOT required to be built?

a. View

b. SQL Table

c. Derived/Work Record

d. Sub Record

e. Query View

ans:d,e

15. Which of the following programs is NOT used in PS SA system?

(a) Crystal

(b) Cobol

(d) Powerbuilder

Answer: (d) Powerbuilder

16. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between running a process on Client and on Server?

(a) Client runs locally, whereas Server runs off PSUNX server

(b) Client runs off main server, whereas Server runs locally

(d) Client runs for interfaces, whereas Server runs for online transactions

Answer: (a) Client runs locally, whereas Server runs off PSUNX server

17. Which of the following demonstrates the sequential flow in generating a Statement of Account?

(a) Create Billing Request -> Print Crystal Bill -> Process Bill Request

(b) Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request -> Print Crystal Bill

(d) Print Crystal Bill -> Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request

Answer: (b) Create Billing Request -> Process Bill Request -> Print Crystal Bill

18. Which of the following fields needs to be populated when creating a billing request?

(a) Address Usage

(b) Item Due Info Term

(d) Aid Term From

Answer: (a) Address Usage

19. Which of the following fields does NOT exist on the Student Bank Information panel?

(a) Bank Code

(b) Branch Code

(d) Bank Account Type

Answer: (d) Bank Account Type

20. Which of the following is the equivalent term to Actual Day of Debit (i.e. date where bank processes the GIRO deduction)?

(a) Value Date

(b) Value Day

(d) Value Period

Answer: (a) Value Date

21. What is the frequency of running SingPost interface?

(a) Twice a day

(b) Once a day

(d) Once a fortnight

Answer: (b) Once a day

22. Which of the following processes is NOT run as a batch?

(a) Tuition Calculation

(b) Accounts Payable

(d) Group Posting

Answer: (c) Quick Posting

23. Which role in ITE has access to Payment Reversal panel?

(a) CPM

(b) EA/FA Dept

(d) EA/IDS Dept

Answer: (a) CPM

24. What process is required prior to performing a charge reversal?

(a) Verify student’s account

(b) Verify student’s academic program status

(d) Verify student’s CCA participation

Answer: (a) Verify student’s account

25. Special Students’ Assistance Scheme (SSAS) is only for

(a) EDU Local Malay

(b) EDU Local Chinese

(d) CET Local Chinese

Answer: (b) EDU Local Chinese

26. When SSAS panel is saved, how many records are inserted into Student Groups record?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 5

Answer: (b) 2

27. What is the flow of roles involved when an EDU student wants to withdraw from term?

(a) Student -> Class Advisor -> Counter Staff -> Section Head

(b) Student -> Class Advisor -> Section Head -> Counter Staff

(d) Student -> Counter Staff -> Section Head -> Class Advisor

Answer: (b) Student -> Class Advisor -> Section Head -> Counter Staff

28. Which of the following roles does NOT use Third Party Contracts?

(a) Admissions Officer / ITEHQ

(b) CET Program Officer / ITEHQ

(d) FAO / ITEHQ

Answer: (d) FAO / ITEHQ

29. When is a Refund Service Indicator being used?

(a) To allow special refunds

(b) To refund students who have bad service indicators

(d) To cancel refund

Answer: (c) To prevent refund temporarily

30. Which of the following is NOT an External Organisation ID?

(a) RCB Number

(b) ROS Number

(d) Trade Union Code

Answer: (d) Trade Union Code

31. Which of the following is NOT covered in Student Financials?

(a) Waivers, Sponsorship, Grants

(b) Defaulted Payments

(d) Raising and printing a payment voucher

Answer: (d) Raising and printing a payment voucher

32. What is the process that interfaces the refund entries from PS SA system to PS Financials system?

(a) Accounts Payable Interface

(b) General Ledger Interface

(d) Payment Interface

Answer: (a) Accounts Payable Interface

33. What is credit history used for?

(a) Track debtors

(b) Track GIRO applicants

(d) Track students who have refunds

Answer: (a) Track debtors

34. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable payment mode?

(a) GIRO

(b) Credit Card

(d) Internet Cash Card

Answer: (b) Credit Card

35. Which of the following BEST describes refunds processing?

(a) Refunds are initiated by Class Advisors

(b) Refunds are due date driven and triggered by events

(d) Refunds are reasons driven and triggered by events

Answer: (b) Refunds are due date driven and triggered by events

36. Who is responsible for the fee configuration in ITE?

(a) MAO (Management and Accounting Officer)

(b) FAO (Finance and Accounting Officer)

(d) HAU (Head of Administrative Unit)

Answer: (b) FAO (Finance and Accounting Officer

37. What is the use of setting up Adjustment Calendars?

(a) Holds the refund policy of an organisation

(b) Holds the calculation rules of an organisation

(d) Holds the due dates of an organisation

Answer: (a) Holds the refund policy of an organisation

38. What is the flow of configure a term fee?

(a) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Criteria -> Term Fee

(b) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Term Fee -> Criteria

(d) Criteria -> Term Fee -> Adj Calendar -> Due Date Calendar

Answer: (a) Due Date Calendar -> Adj Calendar -> Criteria -> Term Fee

39. Which of the following is NOT an interface in Student Financials?

(a) SingPost

(b) GIRO

(d) Student Groups

Answer: (d) Student Groups

40. Which of the following is NOT an action resulting in a refund?

(a) Term Withdrawal

(b) Career Change

(d) Add Module

Answer: (d) Add Module

41. Which of the following is NOT a payment mode starting Apr 2002?

(a) vPOST

(b) GIRO

(d) Counter Service at SingPost

Answer: (a) vPOST

42. Which of the following is NOT a ITE EDU charge?

(a) Supplementary Fee

(b) Locker Fee

(d) Examination Fee

Answer: (b) Locker Fee

43. Which of the following BEST describes Term Start Date?

(a) Date when enrolment completes

(b) Date when term activation begins

(d) Date when enrolment starts

Answer: (c) Date when term activation ends

44. Which of the following is NOT a variable when defining criteria?

(a) Academic Program

(b) Academic Plan

(d) Campus

Answer: (c) Enrolment Date

45. Which of the following program fees is NOT charged by credit unit?

(a) F0ELE

(b) C2ACR

(d) F5BVT

Answer: (d) F5BVT

46. How many tuition groups are defined in PS SA system?

(a) 1

(b) 5

(d) 10

Answer: (c) 8

47. What is Quick Post NOT used for in ITE?

(a) Waiver – ITE Sponsored Staff

(b) Charge – OAP Module

(d) Refund

Answer: (d) Refund

48. Which of the following is NOT a student group in CET career?

(a) SSAS

(b) ITE Alumni

(d) ITE Local Malay

Answer: (a) SSAS

49. Online tuition calculation is used when

(a) A top up student matriculates, enrolls and pay over the counter

(b) Student drops module over the web

(d) An EDU student matriculates over the counter

Answer: (a) A top up student matriculates, enrolls and pay over the counter

50. What is the printout that follows quick posting?

(a) Payment Slip

(b) Receipt

(d) Invoice cum Receipt

Answer: (c) Payment Acknowledgement Slip

51. When a balance is positive, what does it mean?

(a) Student has credited account

(b) Student has an outstanding charge balance

(d) Student has overpaid

Answer: (b) Student has an outstanding charge balance

52. Which of the following is NOT a waiver?

(a) Q2Pass Holders

(b) BEST above 40

(d) TRN Sponsored students

Answer: (d) TRN Sponsored students

53. Which of the following is NOT a type of fee set up in PS SA system?

(a) Term Fee

(b) Module Fee

(d) Module List Fee

Answer: (c) Module Sub Fee

54. Which of the following fee is NOT refundable?

(a) Supplementary

(b) Registration

(d) Course

Answer: (b) Registration

55. What is the proper flow in creating a student’s account?

(a) Quick Admit -> Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation

(b) Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation -> Quick Admit

(d) Tuition Calculation -> Quick Enroll -> Quick Admit

Answer: (a) Quick Admit -> Quick Enroll -> Tuition Calculation

56. Which of the following payment mode is NOT transacted over the counter?

(a) NETS

(b) Cash Card

(d) GIRO

Answer: (d) GIRO

57. Which type of PeopleSoft database Table is PSRECDEFN?

a) Database Metadata

b) PeopleTools

c) System Catalog

d) PeopleSoft Application Data

Ans:b

59. What should a user alter to change a password or create a hint for a forgotten password?

a) Access Profile

b) User Profile

c) Permission List

d) Role

e) Symbolic ID

Ans:b

60. Which action requires a two-tier connection to PeopleSoft 8?

a) Running an upgrade/copy in Application Designer

b) Updating a user profile in Maintain Security

c) Setting the default database type in Configuration Manager

d) Executing a query defined in PeopleSoft Query

e) Updating the personal data record for an employee

Ans:a

61. Which three PeopleCode events are associated with Record Field locations? (Choose three)

a) SaveEdit

b) RowSave

c) FieldEdit

d) RowDelete

e) ScrollEdit

Ans:a,c,d

62. You have made customizations in the development database and need to move them to the production database. Which tool should you use to move the customizations?

a) Upgrade Assistant

b) Application Designer

c) Application Engine

d) Import Manager

e) SQR

Ans:b

63. Given this URL: http://localhost/psp/HRDEV/EMPLOYEE/PSFT_TRN/c/PSU_TRN.PSU_STUDENT.GBL What is the Portal?

a) PSU_TRN

b) HRDEV

c) PSFT_TRN

d) EMPLOYEE

e) PSU_STUDENT

Ans:d

64. According to PeopleSoft recommendations, you apply a newly acquired Application Designer Project from an update or a fix into which database?

a) Application update

b) Development

c) Demo

d) Production

Ans:c

65. The Connect ID is used to _____.

a) Maintain a JOLT connection between the Web Server and Application Server

b) Create a direct connection to the Batch Server

c) Create a direct connection to the Web Server

d) Create a shared ID used to connect directly to the database

e) Connect to an external

Ans:d

66. Where are the query definitions stored in the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture?

a) A File Server directory

b) The Database Server as an object

c) A file on the Web Server

d) The client machine in the browser cache

e) The Application Server cache

Ans:b

67. A client has completed a PeopleTools upgrade and is now testing Query. The client notices that one SQL query is taking one hour to complete when it completed in two minutes in the previous environment. What should you do to solve this problem?

a) Set the JVM Heap size so that the Java Garbage Collector will not be invoked frequently

b) Delete the Process Scheduler cache

c) Re-create the index for the record that the query is running against

d) Bounce the Application Server

e) Reconfigure the PSAPPSRV.cfg file

Ans:c

68. The Application Engine (AE) state record _____.

a) Passes values to the PeopleSoft Process Scheduler

b) Passes values from one Action to another

c) Stores AE source code

d) Stores application data

Ans:b

69. You create a PeopleSoft Menu Definition for a Page and then grant access to users to view the Page. Which class or classes of database tables are impacted by this step?

a) The PeopleTools Tables and System Catalog Tables

b) The System Catalog Tables only

c) The PeopleTools Tables only

d) The Application Data Tables only

e) The System Catalog Tables and Application Data Tables

Ans:c

70. You must view a Business Process Map when a client asks you to _____.

a) Change the mapping of the data

b) Create a report with data from multiple tables

c) Add a field to a table

d) Change a corporate logo on a page

e) Tell the client what to do after terminating an employee

Ans:e

71. A user logs in to PeopleTools 8.4 Application Designer, which points to an HCM database in 3-tier mode. The user tries to navigate to the Workforce Administration menu but cannot see it. Why can the user NOT get to the Workforce Administration menu?

a) The user does not have the appropriate permissions.

b) PeopleSoft applications are no longer accessible in 3-tier mode.

c) The Application Server is down.

d) The Configuration Manager was set up incorrectly.

Ans:b

72. A client wants to use new images with the newly implemented PeopleSoft 8 HRMS module. Where should you store the images?

a) File Server

b) Application Server

c) Batch Server

d) Web Server

e) Database Server

Ans:e

73. When referring to security and privileges granted to a user, what is the behavior of multiple Roles and the privileges granted by them?

a) All access is rolled up to the maximum allowable privilege.

b) All access is rolled down to the lowest level of privilege.

c) Access privileges are defaulted to Dynamic Roles.

d) Access privileges are defaulted to the Primary Role.

e) Multiple Roles are not allowed.

Ans:a

74. Where is the default style sheet specified for system-wide access to PeopleSoft using the portal or PeopleSoft Internet Architecture servlets?

a) In Configuration Manager

b) In Application Designer

c) In PeopleTools Options on the PeopleTools Utilities menu

d) In Setup > Security Links on the Maintain Security menu

e) On the Web server in the Web root directory

Ans:c

75. A customer wants to apply only a critical fix to resolve an application error that is halting production. The company is three months behind in applying all the posted patches and fixes and there are numerous prerequisites to applying each fix. How can you guarantee that a prerequisite will NOT be missed?

a) Apply the patches only for modules that the client uses

b) Apply the latest PeopleSoft patch only

c) Upgrade or install to the most current PeopleTools release

d) Apply the patches for licensed modules only

e) Apply all applicable PeopleSoft service packs

Ans:e

76. After the Component Processor updates the database, which PeopleCode event is fired?

a) SaveEdit

b) SavePostChange

c) SavePreChange

d) SearchSave

Ans:b

77. What is the data retrieval method for a query to be displayed in Oracle?

a) Explain Plan

b) Execution Plan

c) Retrieval Plan

d) Access Path

e) Query Plan

Ans:a

78. How many message nodes can a database have defined within it?

a) Up to 10

b) As many as 1,000

c) An unlimited number

d) Only 1

Ans:c

79. Which statement about PeopleSoft Internet Architecture is true?

a) PeopleSoft 8 is accessed from a browser running on a PC or a Macintosh computer

b) PeopleSoft 8 can be accessed by a cellular phone only if the wireless service provider uses PeopleSoft Internet Architecture

c) PeopleSoft 8 is only accessed via a browser running on a PC with Windows

d) PeopleTools can be installed on a Macintosh computer

e) PeopleTools must be installed on the client’s computer to access PeopleSoft 8

Ans:a

80. A client has multiple Application Servers and wants to use three Application Servers for failover. Where should you make the customization?

a) Application Designer

b) Configuration.properties file

c) Configuration Manager

d) Psappsrv.cfg file

e) Psprcs.cfg file

Ans:b

81. To enable JOLT failover and load balancing in the PIA using BEA WebLogic, you must edit the configuration.properties by entering multiple Application Server domains to _____.

a) Psserver

b) AuthTokenDomain

c) Pswebservername

d) EnableReportRepository

Ans:a

82. What resource is available to PeopleSoft partners who want to obtain implementation documentation for an upcoming project?

a) Partner Connection

b) Partner Alliance

c) PeopleSoft University

d) Alliance Connection

e) PeopleSoft Connect

Ans:d

83. To which two file formats can you download query results? (Choose two)

a) XLS

b) CSV

c) EXL

d) TXT

e) DOC

Ans:a,b

84. What is a benefit of the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture browser-based deployment?

a) It offers a robust, scalable, client-centric architecture.

b) It is a PeopleTools Windows client built to run on the Internet.

c) It moves some of the code from the client to an Application Server.

d) It lowers training time because it operates like Windows.

e) It features an intuitive Web look and functions like Yahoo.

Ans:e

85. Which statement about navigating PeopleSoft 8 applications is true?

a) The client workstation must be using Windows NT

b) A user profile must be set up prior to signon

c) PeopleSoft 8 must be installed on the client

d) Internet Explorer must be used to access PeopleSoft 8

e) The client workstation must be mapped to the Application Serve

Ans:b

86. What are two valid ways to comment code in the PeopleCode editor? (Choose two)

a) // code

b) <* code *>

c) COMMENTS code

d) ! Code

e) /* code */

Ans:b,e

87. When defining the properties of a Menu Item, what are Menu type options?

a) Separator, PeopleCode, or MenuGroup

b) Component, MenuBars, or MenuGroup

c) Page, BarItem, or MenuGroup

d) Page, MenuLabels, or MenuGroup

e) Component, PeopleCode, or Separator

Ans:e

88. On which three RDBMS platforms does PeopleSoft support Unicode? (Choose three)

a) Oracle

b) IBM DB2 MVS

c) Microsoft SQL Server

d) Informix

e) IBM DB2/UDB

Ans:a,c,e

89. Which statement about deferred processing is true?

a) It has no impact on performance for PeopleSoft applications accessed using the PeopleSoft Internet Architecture

b) It can be selectively enabled or disabled for any field on a page, regardless of whether or not it is enabled on Page and Component Definitions

c) It is effectively disabled if the attribute is not set in the Component Definition, regardless of the page (and Page Field) settings

d) It can be disabled only by turning off the attribute on all Component and Page Definitions

e) It is relevant only to PeopleSoft applications accessed via the Windows client

Ans:c

90. What are two valid values for the Optimizer mode in Oracle? (Choose two)

a) STATISTIC

b) COST

c) RULE

d) DATA_DIST

Ans:b,c

91. Which two Web service solutions function only as proxy servers? (Choose two)

a) Microsoft IIS

b) IBM WebSphere

c) Apache

d) BEA WebLogic

Ans:a,c

92. Which BEA product does PeopleSoft use to manage database transactions?

a) WebLogic

b) RDMS

c) JOLT

d) SQL

e) Tuxedo

Ans:e

93. Which topics are covered by PeopleTools PeopleBooks?

a) Integration Broker, Process Scheduler, PeopleCode Developers guide, and Query

b) Data Mover, Query, Application Engine, and Developer’s Portal

c) Application Designer, PS/nVison, Customer Connection, and Administration Tools

d) Workflow, Upgrade Assistant, Compass Methodology, and Tree Manager

e) Security, PeopleTools Global Technology, Component Interfaces, and Payroll

Ans:a

94. Given this URL: http://webhost/psp/hrms/EMPLOYEE/HRMS/c/PROCESS_SCHEDULER.PRCSTYPEDEFN.GBL What is the name of the Component Definition in the URL?

a) EMPLOYEE

b) PROCESS_SCHEDULER

c) PRCSTYPEDEFN.GBL

d) psp

e) HRMS

Ans:c

95. Which topic is contained in the PeopleTools PeopleBook?

a) Managing Workforce Data

b) PeopleSoft Table Loading Sequence

c) PeopleSoft Enterprise Warehouse

d) PeopleSoft General Ledger

e) PeopleSoft Upgrade Assistant

Ans:e

96. What allows you to get a single result set from two or more separate queries at the same time?

a) Multiple Select

b) Union

c) Inner Join

d) Outer Join

e) Dynamic Where

Ans:b

97. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and columns in application data tables stored?

a) PSFIELD

b) PSRECFIELD

c) PS_DBFIELD

d) PSDBFIELD

Ans:d

98. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?

a) SYSTEM CATALOG

b) PEOPLETOOLS TABLES

c) APPLICATION TABLES

d) PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG

Ans:b

99. PeopleSoft has its own naming convention for system and non-system tables. In the list below, RECORDNAME refers to the name of any table or record. Referring to the above information, which one of the following identifies the naming convention PeopleSoft uses for system tables?

a) PS_RECORDNAME

b) SYSRECORDNAME

c) PS$RECORDNAME

d) PSRECORDNAME

e) SYS_PSRECORDNAME

Ans:d

100. Where is the Application Data Cached?

a) Application server

b) Web server

c) Batch server

d) Browser Cache

e) None